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Originally Posted by oil
In your second sentence you suggest this wouldn't happen if capitalism were "working correctly". Why do you think capitalism is not working in this case?
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Capitalism isn't working in this case because free markets don't exist (hence there cannot really be effective capitalism). If markets worked along the lines of Adam Smith, the employer treating his employees this badly in order to obtain more profit would inevitably find himself without employees because they'd simply change to another employer.
Income differences aren't a result of free market capitalism. They're a result of protectionism, imperialism, and nationalism (in a vague fashion).
(edit. generally, discussions over "pure" systems are a little bit moot since no socialism or capitalism really exists, and there's little leeway for either to truly exist. as said, these problems aren't really cases set against pure systems since, well. that)